Biology CBT Exams For NEET

Q1. According to Aristotle, what is required to keep a body in motion?
(A) Inertia (B) External force (C) Gravity (D) Momentum
Ans: B

Q2. Galileo concluded that a body moving on a frictionless horizontal plane will move with:
(A) Increasing speed (B) Decreasing speed (C) Constant velocity (D) Zero velocity
Ans: C

Q3. The property of a body to resist any change in its state is called:
(A) Momentum (B) Force (C) Inertia (D) Friction
Ans: C

Q4. Newton’s first law is also known as the law of:
(A) Gravitation (B) Inertia (C) Momentum (D) Acceleration
Ans: B

Q5. If the net external force on a body is zero, its acceleration is:
(A) Infinite (B) One (C) Zero (D) Variable
Ans: C

Q6. Momentum of a body is equal to:
(A) Mass × Acceleration (B) Mass × Velocity (C) Force × Time (D) Velocity × Acceleration
Ans: B

Q7. SI unit of momentum is:
(A) kg m s⁻¹ (B) N m (C) kg m² s⁻² (D) N s²
Ans: A

Q8. Newton’s second law relates force with:
(A) Velocity (B) Displacement (C) Rate of change of momentum (D) Work
Ans: C

Q9. The SI unit of force is:
(A) Joule (B) Newton (C) Pascal (D) Watt
Ans: B

Q10. One newton is equal to:
(A) 1 kg m s⁻¹ (B) 1 kg m² s⁻² (C) 1 kg m s⁻² (D) 1 kg² m s⁻²
Ans: C

Q11. According to Newton’s second law, force is proportional to:
(A) Mass only (B) Velocity only (C) Acceleration only (D) Mass × Acceleration
Ans: D

Q12. Impulse is equal to:
(A) Force × Distance (B) Force × Time (C) Momentum × Time (D) Mass × Velocity
Ans: B

Q13. Impulse has the same unit as:
(A) Force (B) Pressure (C) Momentum (D) Work
Ans: C

Q14. A large force acting for a short duration is called:
(A) Conservative force (B) Impulsive force (C) Frictional force (D) Centripetal force
Ans: B

Q15. Newton’s third law states that action and reaction are:
(A) Equal and opposite (B) Equal and same direction (C) Unequal (D) Independent
Ans: A

Q16. Action and reaction forces act on:
(A) Same body (B) Different bodies (C) Same point (D) Same direction
Ans: B

Q17. Law of conservation of momentum is based on Newton’s:
(A) First law only (B) Second law only (C) Second and third laws (D) First and second laws
Ans: C

Q18. In an isolated system, total momentum always remains:
(A) Increasing (B) Decreasing (C) Constant (D) Zero
Ans: C

Q19. Equilibrium of a particle means:
(A) Net torque is zero (B) Net force is zero (C) Velocity is zero (D) Momentum is zero
Ans: B

Q20. Frictional force always opposes:
(A) Weight (B) Motion or impending motion (C) Acceleration (D) Gravity
Ans: B

Q21. Static friction acts when the body is:
(A) Sliding (B) Rolling (C) At rest (D) Falling
Ans: C

Q22. Kinetic friction acts when the body is:
(A) At rest (B) Sliding (C) Suspended (D) Rotating only
Ans: B

Q23. Coefficient of static friction is denoted by:
(A) μk (B) μs (C) η (D) λ
Ans: B

Q24. Coefficient of kinetic friction is denoted by:
(A) μs (B) k (C) μk (D) α
Ans: C

Q25. The maximum static friction is given by:
(A) μkN (B) μsN (C) mg (D) N/μs
Ans: B

Q26. Kinetic friction is generally:
(A) Greater than static friction (B) Equal to static friction (C) Less than static friction (D) Zero
Ans: C

Q27. Friction is independent of:
(A) Nature of surfaces (B) Normal reaction (C) Area of contact (D) Roughness
Ans: C

Q28. Rolling friction is:
(A) Greater than sliding friction (B) Smaller than sliding friction (C) Equal to sliding friction (D) Infinite
Ans: B

Q29. Lubricants are used to:
(A) Increase friction (B) Reduce friction (C) Increase weight (D) Increase momentum
Ans: B

Q30. Ball bearings reduce friction by converting:
(A) Sliding friction into rolling friction (B) Static friction into kinetic friction (C) Rolling friction into sliding friction (D) None of these
Ans: A

Q31. Centripetal force acts towards the:
(A) Tangent (B) Centre of circle (C) Outside of circle (D) Upward direction
Ans: B

Q32. Centripetal force required for circular motion is:
(A) mv/R (B) mv²/R (C) mR/v² (D) mRv
Ans: B

Q33. For a car moving on a level circular road, centripetal force is provided by:
(A) Gravity (B) Tension (C) Friction (D) Normal reaction
Ans: C

Q34. Banking of roads helps in:
(A) Increasing friction only (B) Reducing contribution of friction (C) Increasing weight (D) Reducing acceleration
Ans: B

Q35. In uniform circular motion, speed remains:
(A) Zero (B) Constant (C) Variable (D) Infinite
Ans: B

Q36. In circular motion, velocity changes because of change in:
(A) Magnitude only (B) Direction only (C) Mass (D) Radius only
Ans: B

Q37. The force responsible for motion of planets around the Sun is:
(A) Magnetic force (B) Frictional force (C) Gravitational force (D) Electrostatic force
Ans: C

Q38. Newton’s laws are applicable in:
(A) Classical mechanics (B) Quantum mechanics only (C) Nuclear physics only (D) Optics only
Ans: A

Q39. The tendency of a moving object to continue moving is due to:
(A) Force (B) Momentum (C) Inertia (D) Friction
Ans: C

Q40. A passenger in a moving bus falls forward when the bus stops suddenly due to:
(A) Friction (B) Momentum (C) Inertia (D) Gravity
Ans: C

Q41. A passenger falls backward when a stationary bus starts suddenly because of:
(A) Inertia (B) Friction (C) Gravity (D) Acceleration
Ans: A

Q42. If no external force acts on a moving object, it will:
(A) Stop immediately (B) Move with constant velocity (C) Accelerate (D) Move in circle
Ans: B

Q43. The direction of acceleration is always in the direction of:
(A) Velocity (B) Momentum (C) Force (D) Displacement
Ans: C

Q44. Force is a:
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Tensor quantity (D) Dimensionless quantity
Ans: B

Q45. Momentum is a:
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Dimensionless quantity (D) Constant quantity
Ans: B

Q46. Which law explains recoil of a gun?
(A) First law (B) Second law (C) Third law (D) Gravitation law
Ans: C

Q47. The product of mass and acceleration gives:
(A) Work (B) Energy (C) Force (D) Impulse
Ans: C

Q48. If velocity doubles, momentum becomes:
(A) Half (B) Double (C) Four times (D) Unchanged
Ans: B

Q49. The normal reaction acts:
(A) Parallel to surface (B) Perpendicular to surface (C) Along motion (D) Opposite motion
Ans: B

Q50. Friction is a type of:
(A) Non-contact force (B) Contact force (C) Gravitational force (D) Magnetic force
Ans: B

Q51. Tension in a string acts along the:
(A) Radius (B) Surface (C) Length of string (D) Vertical direction only
Ans: C

Q52. The restoring force of a spring is given by:
(A) F = k/x (B) F = kx (C) F = –kx (D) F = mg
Ans: C

Q53. The acceleration due to gravity acts:
(A) Upward (B) Horizontally (C) Vertically downward (D) Circularly
Ans: C

Q54. In equilibrium, the vector sum of all forces is:
(A) One (B) Infinite (C) Zero (D) Maximum
Ans: C

Q55. The momentum of a body depends on:
(A) Mass only (B) Velocity only (C) Mass and velocity (D) Force only
Ans: C

Q56. Newton’s second law is consistent with first law because when F = 0:
(A) Velocity is infinite (B) Acceleration is zero (C) Momentum is zero (D) Mass is zero
Ans: B

Q57. Static friction is called self-adjusting because it:
(A) Is always constant (B) Adjusts according to applied force (C) Depends on velocity (D) Depends on area
Ans: B

Q58. The coefficient of friction depends on:
(A) Area of contact (B) Nature of surfaces (C) Shape of object (D) Mass only
Ans: B

Q59. A body moving with constant velocity has:
(A) Constant acceleration (B) Zero acceleration (C) Infinite acceleration (D) Variable acceleration
Ans: B

Q60. The SI unit of impulse is:
(A) N s (B) N/m (C) kg/m (D) Joule
Ans: A

Q61. The most important concept in chemistry for classification of elements is:
(A) Atomic structure (B) Periodic Table (C) Chemical bonding (D) Stoichiometry
Ans: B

Q62. The number of known elements in 1800 was:
(A) 18 (B) 31 (C) 63 (D) 114
Ans: B

Q63. Dobereiner classified elements into groups of:
(A) Pairs (B) Triads (C) Octaves (D) Periods
Ans: B

Q64. In Dobereiner’s triads, the atomic weight of middle element was approximately:
(A) Double of first (B) Half of third (C) Average of other two (D) Equal to first
Ans: C

Q65. Newlands proposed the law of:
(A) Triads (B) Octaves (C) Periodicity (D) Atomic numbers
Ans: B

Q66. According to Newlands’ law, every ______ element had properties similar to the first.
(A) Fifth (B) Sixth (C) Seventh (D) Eighth
Ans: D

Q67. Mendeleev arranged elements in increasing order of:
(A) Atomic number (B) Density (C) Atomic weight (D) Valency
Ans: C

Q68. Modern periodic law is based on:
(A) Atomic mass (B) Atomic volume (C) Atomic number (D) Density
Ans: C

Q69. Modern periodic law was proposed after the work of:
(A) Rutherford (B) Moseley (C) Dalton (D) Thomson
Ans: B

Q70. According to modern periodic law, properties of elements are periodic functions of their:
(A) Atomic masses (B) Atomic numbers (C) Valencies (D) Densities
Ans: B

Q71. The horizontal rows in the periodic table are called:
(A) Groups (B) Families (C) Periods (D) Blocks
Ans: C

Q72. The vertical columns in the periodic table are called:
(A) Periods (B) Groups (C) Series (D) Shells
Ans: B

Q73. Total number of groups in modern periodic table is:
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 18
Ans: D

Q74. Total number of periods in modern periodic table is:
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
Ans: C

Q75. The first period contains:
(A) 2 elements (B) 8 elements (C) 18 elements (D) 32 elements
Ans: A

Q76. The second period contains:
(A) 2 elements (B) 8 elements (C) 18 elements (D) 32 elements
Ans: B

Q77. The element Eka-silicon predicted by Mendeleev was later discovered as:
(A) Gallium (B) Germanium (C) Scandium (D) Silicon
Ans: B

Q78. Eka-aluminium predicted by Mendeleev was later discovered as:
(A) Gallium (B) Germanium (C) Boron (D) Indium
Ans: A

Q79. The scientist credited with development of periodic table is:
(A) Moseley (B) Dalton (C) Mendeleev (D) Rutherford
Ans: C

Q80. The long form of periodic table is based on:
(A) Electronic configuration (B) Density (C) Atomic volume (D) Equivalent mass
Ans: A

Q81. Elements having similar outer electronic configuration are placed in same:
(A) Period (B) Group (C) Block (D) Shell
Ans: B

Q82. The period number corresponds to:
(A) Atomic number (B) Number of valence electrons (C) Highest principal quantum number (D) Atomic mass
Ans: C

Q83. Lanthanoids belong to:
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
Ans: D

Q84. Actinoids are placed separately at bottom of periodic table to:
(A) Reduce atomic mass (B) Maintain structure of periodic table (C) Increase reactivity (D) Increase periods
Ans: B

Q85. The IUPAC temporary name for element 104 was:
(A) Unnilunium (B) Unnilquadium (C) Unnilbium (D) Unniltrium
Ans: B

Q86. The official name of element 106 is:
(A) Rutherfordium (B) Bohrium (C) Seaborgium (D) Hassium
Ans: C

Q87. The symbol of element Oganesson is:
(A) Og (B) On (C) Oo (D) Os
Ans: A

Q88. The temporary IUPAC symbol for element 120 is:
(A) Uut (B) Uuo (C) Ubn (D) Uub
Ans: C

Q89. The distribution of electrons into orbitals is called:
(A) Ionization (B) Electronic configuration (C) Hybridization (D) Excitation
Ans: B

Q90. The first period starts with filling of:
(A) 2p orbital (B) 2s orbital (C) 1s orbital (D) 3s orbital
Ans: C

Q91. The fourth period contains:
(A) 8 elements (B) 18 elements (C) 32 elements (D) 2 elements
Ans: B

Q92. Transition elements belong to:
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
Ans: C

Q93. Inner transition elements belong to:
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
Ans: D

Q94. Elements of group 1 are called:
(A) Halogens (B) Noble gases (C) Alkali metals (D) Chalcogens
Ans: C

Q95. Elements of group 2 are called:
(A) Transition metals (B) Alkaline earth metals (C) Halogens (D) Noble gases
Ans: B

Q96. The outer electronic configuration of group 1 elements is:
(A) ns² (B) ns²np⁵ (C) ns¹ (D) ns²np⁶
Ans: C

Q97. The outer electronic configuration of group 2 elements is:
(A) ns¹ (B) ns² (C) ns²np¹ (D) ns²np⁶
Ans: B

Q98. Noble gases have valence shell configuration:
(A) ns¹ (B) ns²np¹ (C) ns²np⁶ (D) ns²np⁵
Ans: C

Q99. Halogens belong to group:
(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 18
Ans: C

Q100. Chalcogens belong to group:
(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
Ans: C

Q101. The non-metallic character increases across a period from:
(A) Left to right (B) Right to left (C) Top to bottom (D) Bottom to top
Ans: A

Q102. Metallic character increases down a group because:
(A) Atomic size decreases (B) Ionization enthalpy increases (C) Atomic size increases (D) Electron affinity increases
Ans: C

Q103. Which of the following is a metalloid?
(A) Sodium (B) Silicon (C) Chlorine (D) Magnesium
Ans: B

Q104. The atomic radius generally decreases across a period because:
(A) Shielding increases (B) Nuclear charge decreases (C) Effective nuclear charge increases (D) Number of shells increases
Ans: C

Q105. Atomic radius generally increases down a group due to:
(A) Increase in nuclear charge only (B) Addition of new shells (C) Decrease in electrons (D) Increase in electronegativity
Ans: B

Q106. A cation is smaller than its parent atom because:
(A) Nuclear charge decreases (B) Number of shells increases (C) Electrons decrease but nuclear charge remains same (D) Protons decrease
Ans: C

Q107. An anion is larger than its parent atom because:
(A) Effective nuclear charge increases (B) Electron-electron repulsion increases (C) Nuclear charge decreases (D) Number of protons increases
Ans: B

Q108. O²⁻, F⁻, Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ are examples of:
(A) Isotopes (B) Isobars (C) Isotones (D) Isoelectronic species
Ans: D

Q109. Ionization enthalpy is the energy required to remove an electron from:
(A) Liquid atom (B) Solid atom (C) Isolated gaseous atom (D) Molecule
Ans: C

Q110. Ionization enthalpy generally increases across a period because:
(A) Atomic size increases (B) Effective nuclear charge increases (C) Shielding increases greatly (D) Electronegativity decreases
Ans: B

Q111. Ionization enthalpy generally decreases down a group due to:
(A) Increase in atomic size (B) Decrease in shielding (C) Decrease in shells (D) Increase in electron affinity
Ans: A

Q112. Electron gain enthalpy is maximum negative for:
(A) Noble gases (B) Alkali metals (C) Halogens (D) Alkaline earth metals
Ans: C

Q113. Noble gases have positive electron gain enthalpy because:
(A) They are metals (B) They have stable electronic configuration (C) Their size is small (D) They have low ionization enthalpy
Ans: B

Q114. Electronegativity is the tendency of an atom to:
(A) Lose electrons (B) Gain protons (C) Attract shared electrons (D) Repel neutrons
Ans: C

Q115. The most electronegative element is:
(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (C) Chlorine (D) Fluorine
Ans: D

Q116. Electronegativity generally decreases down a group because:
(A) Atomic radius increases (B) Atomic radius decreases (C) Nuclear charge decreases (D) Valence electrons decrease
Ans: A

Q117. Metals are generally:
(A) Poor conductors (B) Brittle (C) Malleable and ductile (D) Non-reactive gases
Ans: C

Q118. Non-metals are generally:
(A) Good conductors (B) Malleable (C) Ductile (D) Poor conductors
Ans: D

Q119. The oxide Na₂O is:
(A) Acidic (B) Neutral (C) Basic (D) Amphoteric
Ans: C

Q120. The oxide Cl₂O₇ is:
(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) Amphoteric
Ans: A

Q121. The kingdom Animalia includes organisms that are:
(A) Unicellular (B) Multicellular (C) Acellular (D) Prokaryotic
Ans: B

Q122. The arrangement of cells in sponges represents:
(A) Tissue level (B) Organ level (C) Cellular level (D) Organ system level
Ans: C

Q123. Tissue level of organisation is first seen in:
(A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Annelida
Ans: B

Q124. Organ level of organisation is present in:
(A) Porifera (B) Cnidaria (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Ctenophora
Ans: C

Q125. Organ-system level of organisation is found in:
(A) Annelida onwards (B) Porifera only (C) Coelenterata only (D) Ctenophora only
Ans: A

Q126. Incomplete digestive system has:
(A) Two openings (B) One opening (C) No opening (D) Three openings
Ans: B

Q127. A complete digestive system possesses:
(A) Mouth only (B) Anus only (C) Mouth and anus (D) Gills and mouth
Ans: C

Q128. In open circulatory system, blood directly bathes:
(A) Arteries only (B) Veins only (C) Cells and tissues (D) Heart only
Ans: C

Q129. Closed circulatory system contains:
(A) Only arteries (B) Vessels like arteries and veins (C) Open spaces only (D) No blood
Ans: B

Q130. Animals that cannot be divided into equal halves by any plane are:
(A) Radial (B) Bilateral (C) Asymmetrical (D) Spherical
Ans: C

Q131. Radial symmetry is present in:
(A) Arthropods (B) Annelids (C) Coelenterates (D) Platyhelminthes
Ans: C

Q132. Bilateral symmetry is seen in:
(A) Sponges (B) Echinoderms adults (C) Arthropods (D) Ctenophores
Ans: C

Q133. Diploblastic animals possess:
(A) One germ layer (B) Two germ layers (C) Three germ layers (D) Four germ layers
Ans: B

Q134. Mesoglea is present between ectoderm and endoderm in:
(A) Triploblastic animals (B) Coelenterates (C) Arthropods (D) Molluscs
Ans: B

Q135. Triploblastic animals possess:
(A) Ectoderm only (B) Endoderm only (C) Mesoderm only (D) Three germ layers
Ans: D

Q136. The body cavity lined by mesoderm is called:
(A) Pseudocoelom (B) Haemocoel (C) Coelom (D) Spongocoel
Ans: C

Q137. Animals possessing true coelom are called:
(A) Acoelomates (B) Coelomates (C) Pseudocoelomates (D) Diploblasts
Ans: B

Q138. Pseudocoelom is found in:
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Aschelminthes (C) Arthropoda (D) Mollusca
Ans: B

Q139. Acoelomate animals belong to:
(A) Annelida (B) Mollusca (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Echinodermata
Ans: C

Q140. Metameric segmentation is characteristic of:
(A) Porifera (B) Annelida (C) Mollusca (D) Coelenterata
Ans: B

Q141. Notochord is formed from:
(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm (C) Mesoderm (D) Epidermis
Ans: C

Q142. Animals possessing notochord are called:
(A) Non-chordates (B) Coelenterates (C) Chordates (D) Echinoderms
Ans: C

Q143. Sponges belong to phylum:
(A) Coelenterata (B) Porifera (C) Mollusca (D) Arthropoda
Ans: B

Q144. Water enters sponge body through:
(A) Osculum (B) Mouth (C) Ostia (D) Tentacles
Ans: C

Q145. The central cavity in sponges is called:
(A) Coelom (B) Spongocoel (C) Mesoglea (D) Gastrovascular cavity
Ans: B

Q146. Choanocytes are also known as:
(A) Flame cells (B) Collar cells (C) Nematocysts (D) Nephridia
Ans: B

Q147. Digestion in sponges is:
(A) Extracellular (B) Intracellular (C) Both intracellular and extracellular (D) Absent
Ans: B

Q148. Skeleton of sponges is made up of:
(A) Chitin (B) Calcium carbonate only (C) Spicules or spongin fibres (D) Keratin
Ans: C

Q149. Cnidoblasts are characteristic of:
(A) Mollusca (B) Arthropoda (C) Coelenterata (D) Echinodermata
Ans: C

Q150. The stinging capsules in cnidarians are called:
(A) Choanocytes (B) Nematocysts (C) Flame cells (D) Nephridia
Ans: B

Q151. Cnidarians exhibit ______ level of organisation.
(A) Cellular (B) Tissue (C) Organ (D) Organ-system
Ans: B

Q152. The sessile form of cnidarians is called:
(A) Medusa (B) Polyp (C) Larva (D) Trochophore
Ans: B

Q153. The umbrella-shaped free-swimming form of cnidarians is:
(A) Polyp (B) Medusa (C) Hydra (D) Coral
Ans: B

Q154. Alternation of generations in cnidarians is known as:
(A) Metamorphosis (B) Regeneration (C) Metagenesis (D) Binary fission
Ans: C

Q155. Ctenophores are commonly called:
(A) Flatworms (B) Sea walnuts (C) Roundworms (D) Starfish
Ans: B

Q156. Locomotion in ctenophores occurs by:
(A) Tentacles (B) Parapodia (C) Comb plates (D) Tube feet
Ans: C

Q157. Bioluminescence is well marked in:
(A) Porifera (B) Mollusca (C) Ctenophora (D) Annelida
Ans: C

Q158. Platyhelminthes are commonly known as:
(A) Segmented worms (B) Flatworms (C) Roundworms (D) Ribbon worms
Ans: B

Q159. Platyhelminthes are generally:
(A) Coelomate (B) Pseudocoelomate (C) Acoelomate (D) Diploblastic
Ans: C

Q160. Flame cells in flatworms help in:
(A) Respiration (B) Circulation (C) Osmoregulation and excretion (D) Digestion
Ans: C

Q161. Regeneration is well developed in:
(A) Taenia (B) Fasciola (C) Planaria (D) Ascaris
Ans: C

Q162. Aschelminthes are commonly called:
(A) Flatworms (B) Segmented worms (C) Roundworms (D) Sponges
Ans: C

Q163. Aschelminthes possess:
(A) True coelom (B) Pseudocoelom (C) No coelom (D) Haemocoel only
Ans: B

Q164. Sexes are separate in:
(A) Earthworm (B) Leech (C) Ascaris (D) Hydra
Ans: C

Q165. Annelids are:
(A) Acoelomate (B) Pseudocoelomate (C) Coelomate (D) Diploblastic
Ans: C

Q166. Locomotory organs in Nereis are:
(A) Tube feet (B) Tentacles (C) Parapodia (D) Pseudopodia
Ans: C

Q167. Excretion in annelids occurs through:
(A) Flame cells (B) Nephridia (C) Malpighian tubules (D) Green glands
Ans: B

Q168. Arthropoda is the ______ phylum of Animalia.
(A) Smallest (B) Largest (C) Primitive (D) Simplest
Ans: B

Q169. The exoskeleton of arthropods is made of:
(A) Cellulose (B) Chitin (C) Calcium carbonate (D) Keratin
Ans: B

Q170. Excretion in arthropods takes place through:
(A) Nephridia (B) Flame cells (C) Malpighian tubules (D) Kidneys
Ans: C

Q171. Honey bee belongs to genus:
(A) Bombyx (B) Apis (C) Locusta (D) Aedes
Ans: B

Q172. Mollusca is the ______ largest animal phylum.
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth
Ans: B

Q173. The rasping organ in molluscs is called:
(A) Radula (B) Mantle (C) Proboscis (D) Operculum
Ans: A

Q174. The cavity between mantle and visceral hump is:
(A) Coelom (B) Mantle cavity (C) Spongocoel (D) Haemocoel
Ans: B

Q175. Water vascular system is characteristic of:
(A) Mollusca (B) Arthropoda (C) Echinodermata (D) Hemichordata
Ans: C

Q176. Adult echinoderms are generally:
(A) Bilaterally symmetrical (B) Radially symmetrical (C) Asymmetrical (D) Cylindrical
Ans: B

Q177. Hemichordates possess a rudimentary structure called:
(A) Notochord (B) Stomochord (C) Neural cord (D) Radula
Ans: B

Q178. The body of hemichordates consists of:
(A) Head and trunk (B) Proboscis, collar and trunk (C) Thorax and abdomen (D) Cephalothorax and abdomen
Ans: B

Q179. Chordates possess a ______ nerve cord.
(A) Ventral solid (B) Dorsal hollow (C) Double ventral (D) Lateral hollow
Ans: B

Q180. All vertebrates are:
(A) Non-chordates (B) Protochordates (C) Chordates (D) Invertebrates
Ans: C

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